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The
Millennium
The Millennium Series was taught by Dr. James Modlish
The
Interpretation of The
Scriptures
(Lesson
2)
Last
session we end with five very important questions, in
fact coupling these five principles with two others,
Dispensational Truth, and the Absolute infallibility of
our A.V. 1611, you have the keys to understanding God's
Holy Word.
Let us
address the first question; is the Bible to be
interpreted literally or allegorically?
Hermeneutics
is the study of Biblical Interpretation. If literal
interpretation is correct, then the premillennial
viewpoint is undoubtedly correct. Floyd E. Hamilton an
Amillennialist in his book The Basis of Millennial Faith
writes, "Now we must frankly admit that a literal
interpretation of the Old Testament prophecies gives us
just such a picture of an earthly reign of the Messiah as
the Premillennialist pictures... the Jews were looking
for just such a Kingdom as that expected by those
Premillennialist who speak of the Jews holding a
preeminent place in an earthly Jewish Kingdom to be set
up by the Messiah in Jerusalem."
Allow me to
interject, one of the greatest proofs of the premil
position is the existence of Israel
today!
The major
problem with deciding whether literal
or allegorical
interpretation is demanded by scripture is complicated by
the fact that neither the amil or premil will admit that
all of the Bible is to be interpreted literally or
figuratively. For example, Jesus said, "I am the door,"
Jesus did not have a doorknob and hinges, this is
figurative speaking. Where do you draw the line? The safe
rule is take everything in the Bible literally until the
context forces you to a figurative
interpretation.
The
allegorical
method
of interpretation, as developed by Origen, was one of the
factors that helped produce the Dark Ages. The premil
believes that the Book of Revelation gives a description
of literal events that will take place during the Great
Tribulation. The amil believes that the book was written
to encourage the early Christians who were passing
through a great time of persecution.
The
problem with the allegorical interpretation lies in two
main areas:
[1].
Where do you stop allegorizing?;
[2]. What do you use as a reference point to
prove your interpretation if everything is
symbolic?
The
Reformers used the Literal Method
It was
not until the Reformation that sound biblical exegesis
was produced.
William
Tyndale said, "Thou shalt understand, therefore, that
the scripture hath but one sense, which is the literal
sense. And that literal sense is the root and ground of
all, and the anchor that never faileth, whereunto if thou
cleave, thou canst never err or go out of the way. And if
thou leave the literal sense, thou canst not go but out
of the way."
Martin
Luther said, "Every word should be allowed to stand
in its' natural meaning ..."
John
Calvin said, "Let us know then, that the true meaning
of Scripture is the natural and obvious meaning, and let
us embrace and abide by it resolutely.
Again the
rule is interpret all scripture literally unless the
context dictates otherwise.
Read:
(Rev. 20:1-10, note verses 2,3,4,5,6,7).
If this
chapter is to be interpreted in a literal manner, it is
so simple that any child can understand the meaning, but
when an allegorical meaning is attached to these words no
two commentators agree. The problem is then there is no
reference point to prove interpretation. There certainly
is much symbolism within the Book of Revelation but to
allegorize the whole of it away leaves the Book a 'sore
thumb' in the Bible. What is its' purpose? How about the
many cross references to Daniel and many other Old
Testament books? Are they to be allegorized to? What then
do we find ourselves left with?
The amil,
very foolishly, tries to tell us that the twentieth
chapter of Revelation is the only place the millennium is
mentioned. It is true that this is the only place where
the specific length of time, 1000 years, is mentioned,
but let us look at some other Biblical passages that
describe the Millennium:
(Lk.
1:68-77) What were the Jews looking for? (Acts 1:6)
(See: Psa. 72:1-19; Isa. 2:1-5; Isa. 11:1-12; Isa.
35:1-10; Jer. 23:5-8)
The Second
major question we asked in Lesson One was,
"Are
the biblical covenants conditional or
unconditional?"
The
major biblical covenants are as follows:
[1]. The
Edenic Covenant
made before the fall (Gen. 1:26-31). In it God's
blessing on is conditional Adam's obedience. It is one
of two conditional convenants.
[2]. The
Adamic Covenant
made after the fall (Gen. 3:16-19), in it God tells
Adam of the consequences his sin.
[3]. The
Noahic Covenant,
made with Noah and his sons after the flood. (Gen.
9:1-17) Under this convenant human government was
established.
[4]. The
Abrahamic Covenant
in a large measure provides the foundation for the
correct interpretation of the prophetic scriptures.
Abraham has a spiritual seed and a physical seed. Much
confusion comes when one tries to make both one.
[5]. The
Mosaic Covenant,
the second conditional covenant, was terminated at the
cross.
[6]. The Palestinian Covenant deals
with Israel's final possession of the land of Canaan,
Deut. 30:1-10. This is intertwined with the land grant
of the Abrahamic covenant, but separate in that the
first (Abrahamic) deals with the people, the second
(Palestinian) deals with the place.
[7]. The
Davidic Covenant,
(2 Sam. 7:4-16), deals with a particular house and
tribe within the nation Israel.
[8]. The
New Covenant
started in (Jer. 31:31-40) and found in (Heb. 8:8-12).
Specifically aimed at Israel.
The premil
teaches that the Abrahamic, Palestinian Davidic and New
Covenants are unconditional covenants of grace; the amil
teaches that all are conditional.
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