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The
Acts of The Apostles
Acts was taught by Dr. James Modlish
Chapter
Two
(2:1-13)
Intro:
The
feast itself came fifty days after the Passover. (Lev.
23:15,16) describes the Jewish Feast and marks it as a
commemoration of the giving of the Law at Horeb.
The two
heresies extracted from this passage are:
A.
You are not saved and "sanctified" until you have the
"baptism of the Holy Ghost."
B.
The initial evidence of the "baptism of the Holy Ghost"
is speaking in tongues. Rather than outline a passage
which is a historical narrative, we will list several
facts.
[1].
There are no Christians present anywhere in the
chapter before or after Peter's message to Israel. The
term "Christian" does not even show up in your Bible
until (Acts 11:26). Everyone there is a Jew (See vs.
1,5,8-11,14,22,36)
[2]. No one is praying for the gift of
tongues, or the baptism of the Holy Ghost before, or
after, Pentecost.
[3]. No one in (Acts 2) speaks with an
"unknown tongue." All the languages are listed and
understood by those raised in them. (vs. 8-11)
[4]. Not one mention is made anywhere in the
chapter about Christ dying for anyone's sins (cf. 1
Cor. 15:1-5), and no one is asking anyone how to get
saved in that sense, The "Salvation" is from a
"Generation" (vs. 40): not from Hell or a Lake of
Fire.
[5]. Nobody is baptized "with the Holy Ghost
and Fire", for the cloven tongues (vs. 3, are. "LIKE
AS OF FIRE."
[6]. Out of 120 disciples (1:15) only eleven
have the gift of foreign languages (vs. 7)
[7]. "And suddenly there came a sound from
heaven as of a rushing mighty wind..." (vs. 2), which
never happens where Charismatic -Golossalaic people
meet, and never happens when "they pray in the
Spirit."
[8]. The "wind" will match the statement of
Jesus in (Jn. 3:8) and the companion passage in (Eze.
37:9-14). It may also be compared with Elijah's
visitation by the "still small voice" in (1 Kings
19:11,12).
[9]. (VS. 4) says they were "filled" and yet
it is obvious that this is also a "baptism" (1:5). In
Chapter (4:31) we are told they were "filled with the
Holy Ghost" and did not speak in tongues. Furthermore,
the "filling of the Spirit" is commanded for every
Christian (Eph. 5:18), although the gift of tongues is NOT. Every Christian has been baptized by the
Holy Spirit (I Cor. 12:13) but some have gifts
considerably better than tongues (1 Cor. 12:31), which
is the LEAST gift in any list where it appears. observe that "filling of the Holy Spirit" occurs many times in the
book of Acts without any accompanying "tongues" (4:8,
4:31; 6:3,5; 7:55; 9:7; & 13:52).
[10]. "New wine" is defined as the juice of
grapes (Isa. 65:8), hanging on a vine (Gen. 40:10). it
is squeezed out (Gen. 40:11) into a cup (Matt. 26:29)
before any fermentation takes place. It is NOT "old
wine" (Lk. 5:39), therefore the charge of (vs. 13) is
sarcastic. This is why the Holy Spirit recorded
"Others MOCKING said, these men ... etc." The
idea is, "These dudes are stoned on cokes. (But such a
translation could hardly pass the approval of those
who want a "Living Bible" written in the "common
language" of the street!)
Section
2
(2:14-21)
Intro:
If we
are to set our theology straight it is critical that we
approach these verses-very carefully to make sure that we
do not alter one thing that is found in them. The
majority of writers, commentators, revisers, and teachers
believe that (Joel 2:28-32) was fulfilled in (Acts 2),
and that, therefore, phenomena such as verses (19,20, & 30) are to be spiritualized. Even though this
position is much more compatible with modern theology, it
is dangerous to try and do away with kingdom promises
given to Israel.
OBSERVE
THE FOLLOWING:
[1].
The discourse is still Jewish (vs. 14)
[2]. The Spirit was not poured out on all
flesh anywhere in (Acts 2). The Spirit tilled eleven
men (or 120 disciples), and the Spirit was no more
"poured out" on the 3,000 converts than the converts
of (Acts 17:34). They received the gift of the Holy
Ghost (Acts 2:38;39) but a "pouring out" never took
place.
[3]. The Spirit was not poured out on "all
flesh" anywhere in the New Testament before, or after,
Pentecost. The born again child of God is born of the
Spirit and is not "in the flesh" (Rom. 8:9). The
Spirit does not even touch the flesh of the believer
at his new birth (Col. 2:11-14), for this is a
spiritual circumcision (Rom. 7:4,5) which is done
inside the body.
[4]. Nobody dreams any dreams in Acts 2 (vs.
17,18) and the words "and they shall prophecy" are not
in (Joel 2:29).
[5]. There are no pillars of smoke in Acts
anywhere.
[6]. There is no fulfillment of the dark sun
or the bloody moon in Acts.
[7]. Joel is
speaking of deliverance in "fit. Zion" (Joel 2:32),
where the temple was and "in Jerusalem" (Joel 2:32),
which spiritually is called "Sodom and Egypt" (Rev.
11:8)!
[8]. Joel doesn't prophesy of rushing winds
and cloven tongues of fire, or even "other tongues" anywhere in his entire book.
It ought to he obvious by
now that Joel's prophecy was not fulfilled. Further,
Peter does not say that it was fulfilled (as he did in
Acts 1:16). He says, "This is that which was
SPOKEN by the prophet Joel." Now observe how
the word "this" is used in Matt. 16:18 and how it led
to the confounding of Peter as the "Rock". Yet, the
Scriptures (1 Cor. 10:2-4, 1 Pet. 2:3-6) told you
plainly who the "Rock" was!
It is evident therefore,
that Simon Peter's "THIS" (Acts 2:16) does not
refer to verses (1-6); it refers to the quotation that
follows (vs. 17-20) What Peter quotes is not a
prophecy of (Acts 2:1-6), but rather the other things
that Joel said would take place in the
"LAST
DAYS" (vs. 17) of
Israel.
Because Acts 2:1-6 is a
preparation for the last days we must conclude the
following:
[1].
Israel, here, is being given a "second chance" to get
right after Christ's prayer of (Lk. 23:34) was
answered for them. We are dealing with a renewed offer
of the "kingdom," for until (Acts 7) this matter is
held in abeyance. If the Sanhedrin had officially
repented and accepted Christ they would have gone out
to Gehenna and fulfilled (Deut. 21:1-9)! And then
without any revelation of a mystery body! - Daniel's
70th week would have started, preceded by the rapture
of (Song of Sol. 2:10-13, Isa. 26:19-21, and Ps.
50:1-10).
[2].
According to Joel; deliverance would not be at
Golgotha (Mt. Calvary) it would be inside the city
(Heb. 13:13) on Mt. Zion.
[3]. Salvation at this time (Acts 2:21) was in
the form of "deliverance" (Joel 2:32)
[4]. Those who would be saved would be "the
remnant" (Joel 3:32), exactly as the remnant of (Rev.
12:17, Zech. 8:6,12, Zeph. 3:13, Amos 5:15), and a
dozen other places.
[5]. The "early and latter rain" - called "the
former rain, and the latter rain" in (Joel 2:23)
cannot be connected with (Acts 2) with a hydraulic
coupling. These rains fall in the first month,
according to Joel (Joel 2:23) and Pentecost is more
than two weeks into the second month. Therefore, all
this baloney about the "early and latter rain"
referring to the first advent of the Holy Ghost and
the 20th century revival of "Pentecostalism" is
blatant falsehood.
[6]. Now, the only time that the Spirit of God
will be "poured out on all flesh" will be "AFTERWARD" (Joel 2:28), and notice how this thing was worded in
(Acts 15:16,17) when James spoke of the conversion of
Gentiles in the Millennium. "AFTERWARD" is after the TRIBULATION by virtue of every
context dealing with the subject (Heb. 8:10), and the
blood, and fire, and "Pillars of smoke" (Joel 2:30)
will be literal. "In those days" Joel says (Joel
3:1,2) Israel is redeemed and restored (Lk. 1:68-79)
and the phenomena that accompanies the last days of
this Tribulation are described in detail in (Joel 3:
9-21).
Section
3
(2:22-36)
Vs.
22
[1]. "Ye men of Israel" - This should settle any
doubt in the mind of any honest Christian as to the
nature of the address that Peter is about to give.
Compare with vs. 14 and vs. 36.
[2]. "...Jesus of Nazareth, a man..."
This is a Jewish designation for an earthly
prophet sent to Israel. Paul never refers to Christ as "The Son of man" in his epistles, and yet, this term
is found scores of times in Matt., Mark and Luke. John
uses the term more sparingly and tells us why in Jn.
20:31. John's gospel magnifies the Deity of Christ -
hence in. 1:1-6 is the lineage of a man whose real
genealogy has no beginning in time. Jn. 1-3 gives no
human genealogy.
[3]. "...Miracles and wonders and
signs" This locates the ministry of the Apostles
in no uncertain terms, and the words occur several
times in the Book (2:19,22,43; 4:30; 5:12; 7:36; 8:13; & 14:3). A search of these verses demonstrate that APOSTOLIC
SUCCESSION was
found only within the nation of Israel. The signs and
wonders given Moses are given to Jesus Christ (Deut.
18:15-20) and He passes them on to the Jewish Apostles
(Mk. 16:14-20; 2 Cor. 12:12). With the death of the
last Apostle, there are no Apostles left to lay hands
on anyone, and the "signs and wonder" cease with their
ministry since the SIGNS (1 Cor. 1:22) are for Israel
(Ex. 4:30). There is no indication that anyone is
given these "signs" unless they receive them directly
from Apostolic hands (Mk. 16:17-19) and there is no
case recorded where Titus, Silas, Timothy, Barnabas,
etc. passed on any of this to anyone. If someone wants
to claim "signs" today, why don't they go all the way
- raise the dead! Paul and Peter did - (Acts 9 & 20) .
Vs.
23
[1].
"...determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God..."
As noted in the introduction lesson the Book of Acts
is one of the main stays (along with Eph 1:4 and Rom.
9:16) for the Calvinistic heresies of Absolute
Predestination. Limited Atonement, Unconditional
Election, and other non-Biblical nonsense. The reason
why (Acts 2:21) is such a favorite with the Calvinists
is because it places "determination" BEFORE
foreknowledge. What is overlooked by the Calvinist is
that this text has nothing to do with individual
salvation. The only thing here that was predetermined
was that Christ would be delivered. Foreknowledge
precedes Predestination when Salvation is involved
(Rom 8:29).
[2]. "...Ye have taken, and by wicked hands
have crucified and slain:" Peter calls this "killing" in (Acts 3:15) which is an act that comes from the
freewill. (Ex. 20:13) (See Lk. 17:1)
Vs. 24
[1].
"...pains of death..." This is plainly a reference to
the things which attend death and these things are
binding on the sinner. In the O.T. they were permanent
bindings, for not even the saved entered Heaven; they
went instead to "Abraham's bosom" (Lk. 16; Ex. 34:7).
The only physical pain Jesus mentions on the cross is
due to thirst, to "fulfill the scripture" (Jn. 19:28;
Ps. 69:21). But, undoubtedly, the real cross-reference
is to (Heb. 2:14), where men lived in fear of death
all their life. It is the resurrection of Christ that
looses men from this "pain" (1 Peter 1:3; Acts
26:18).
Vs.
25
[1].
"...For David speaketh concerning him... The citations
are from (Ps. 16:8-11). The words attributed to Jesus
Christ a, spoken by Daniel under the inspiration of
the Holy Spirit (Mk. 12:36) and they picture Christ's
attitude toward the Father when He (Jesus) was
enduring the "pains of death." The Psalm-states that
God the Father was Christ's strength and His "right
hand" in time of trouble. Therefore, the Lord Jesus
Christ could set His face like a flint (Isa. 50:7) to
carry out God's will (in. 4:34) and esteem the death
of the cross a joy (Heb. 12:1-3); He would not be
moved from this purpose in a lifetime (Matt.
16:21-.24). Furthermore, He rejoiced in this will
(Heb. 10:1-6) which is apparent by the wording
"Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was
glad;" (vs. 26).
Vs. 27
[1].
"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell..." Every
new translation I checked out said ! "Hades" instead
of HELL!
It just doesn't seem quite so strong! In understanding
the great doctrine that comes from this verse, we-may
understand why some would like to smokescreen it.
QUESTION - If Jesus Christ did not go down to (and through)
Hell, as a "Place of torment" (Lk. 16:28), WHERE
ARE YOUR SINS? - (SEE
HEB. 9:28).
PLEASE
OBSERVE:
A. Jesus Christ went
into "the lower parts" of the earth before His
resurrection (Eph 4:8-10; Matt. 12:39,40). These "lower
parts" include a HELL
where a man is "tormented in this flame" (Lk.
16:23).
B. If Jesus went only
to Abraham's Bosom "Paradise" - See Lk. 23:43) and then
returned with the captives (Eph. 4:8) what did He do with
the sins that were "IN HIS OWN BODY" (1 Peter
2:24)?
C. Why are we told
that the second time He appears "WITHOUT SIN" when
the context is bearing sins? (SEE
HEB. 9:28)
D. If Christ bore
your sins in His own BODY and became SIN
for you (2 Cor. 5:21) to the point of being made a curse
(Gal. 3:13), what did He do with your sins?
E. The scapegoat of
(Lev. 16) "bore the sins" away, in type. But Jesus Christ
did not merely bear them: He carried them
SOMEWHERE.
F. Christ's Spirit
went back to the Father (Ecc. 3:21, Lk. 23:46) while His
body went to the tomb of Joseph of Arimethea (Lk.
24:1-4). His soul went straight down into Hell (Isa
53:10), and through it, and back out the other side of
Paradise, with the captivity led captive (Eph.
4:8-10).
Vs.
28
"...thou shalt make me
full of joy with thy countenance." Clearly showing us
that if we are saved, we should have the "Joy, joy, joy,
down in our hearts," for the countenance has at least
shined, spiritually, in our hearts (2 Cor. 4:6). This
means that the second fruit of the Spirit (Gal. 5:22)
should be manifest at all times and especially so when
dealing with the truth (1 Cor. 13:6).
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Acts
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